1. Solution: By definition, we have

\[\begin{align*}\langle (z_1,\cdots,z_n),T^*(w_1,\cdots,w_n)\rangle=&\langle T(z_1,\cdots,z_n),(w_1,\cdots,w_n) \rangle

\\=& z_1w_2+\cdots+z_{n-1}w_{n}=\langle (z_1,\cdots,z_n),(w_2,\cdots,w_n,0)\rangle.\end{align*}\]Therefore $T^*(w_1,\cdots,w_n)=(w_2,\cdots,w_n,0)$ or $T^*(z_1,\cdots,z_n)=(z_2,\cdots,z_n,0)$.

See also Linear Algebra Done Right Solution Manual Chapter 6 Problem 27.

2. Solution: (This solution works for $\dim V<\infty$, I am not sure whether $V$ is finite dimensional or not)Note that $(T^*)^*=T$, it suffices to show $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $T$ then $\bar\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $T^*$. Let $v$ be a eigenvectors of $T$ corresponding to $\lambda$, then $Tv=\lambda v$. We have \begin{equation}\label{7AP1}0=((T-\lambda I)v,w)=(v,(T^*-\bar\lambda I)w)\end{equation}for all $w\in V$. If $\bar\lambda$ is not an eigenvalue of $T^*$, then $T^*-\bar\lambda I$ is surjective by 5.6. It follows that there exists some $\xi\in V$ such that $(T^*-\bar\lambda I)\xi=v$. By $(\ref{7AP1})$, we have \[0=(v,(T^*-\bar\lambda I)\xi)=(v,v).\]But $v\ne 0$ since $v$ is a eigenvectors, we get a contradiction. Hence we get the conclusion.

Solution: See Linear Algebra Done Right Solution Manual Chapter 6 Problem 28.

3. Solution: Let $u\in U$ and $w\in U^\perp$, then we have \begin{equation}\label{7AP1.1} \langle Tu,w\rangle=\langle u,T^*w\rangle. \end{equation} If $U$ is invariant under $T$, then $Tu\in U$ for all $u\in U$. Hence for a fixed $w\in U^\perp$, we have \[ 0=\langle Tu,w\rangle=\langle u,T^*w\rangle \]for all $u\in U$. This implies $T^*w\in U^{\perp}$. As $w$ is chosen arbitrarily, we conclude $U^{\perp}$ is invariant under $T^*$. The other direction is similar.

Solution: See Linear Algebra Done Right Solution Manual Chapter 6 Problem 29.

4. Solution: See Linear Algebra Done Right Solution Manual Chapter 6 Problem 30.

5. Solution: We have

$$ \begin{aligned} \operatorname{dim} \operatorname{null} T^* &= \operatorname{dim} (\operatorname{range} T)^\perp\\ &= \operatorname{dim} W – \operatorname{dim} \operatorname{range} T\\ &= \operatorname{dim} W + \operatorname{dim} \operatorname{null} T – \operatorname{dim} V \end{aligned} $$ where the first line follows from 7.7 (a), the second from 6.50 and the third from 3.22. We alse have

$$ \begin{aligned} \operatorname{dim} \operatorname{range} T^* &= \operatorname{dim} (\operatorname{null} T)^\perp\\ &= \operatorname{dim} V – \operatorname{dim} \operatorname{null} T\\ &= \operatorname{dim} \operatorname{range} T \end{aligned} $$ where the first line follows from 7.7 (b), the second from 6.50 and the third from 3.22.

6. Solution: (a) If $T$ were self-adjoint, we would have

$$ \langle Tp, q \rangle = \langle p, T^*q \rangle = \langle p, Tq \rangle. $$ However, let $p(x) = a_0 + a_1 x + a_2 x^2$ and $q(x) = b_0 + b_1 x + b_2 x^2$. We have

$$ \begin{aligned} \langle Tp, q \rangle &= \langle a_1 x, q \rangle\\ &= a_1 \int_0^1 b_0x + b_1x^2 + b_2x^3\:dx\\ &= a_1 \left(\frac{b_0}{2}x^2 + \frac{b_1}{3}x^3 + \frac{b_2}{4}x^4\right)\biggr\rvert_0^1\\ &= a_1 \left(\frac{b_0}{2} + \frac{b_1}{3} + \frac{b_2}{4}\right). \end{aligned} $$ Similarly

$$ \langle p, Tq \rangle = \langle p, b_1x \rangle = b_1 \left(\frac{a_0}{2} + \frac{a_1}{3} + \frac{a_2}{4}\right). $$ Thus, taking $a_1 = 0$ and $b_1, a_0, a_2 > 0$ clearly shows $\langle Tp, q \rangle \neq \langle p, Tq \rangle$.

*(b)* 7.10 requires the chosen basis to be orthonormal.

7. Solution: We have $(ST)^*=T^*S^*$ by 7.6 (e). Hence $ST$ is self-adjoint if and only if \[T^*S^*=ST.\]Note that $S,T\in\ca L(V)$ are self-adjoint, we have $S^*=S$ and $T^*=T$. Therefore $ST$ is self-adjoint if and only if $T^*S^*=ST$, which is equivalent to $ST=TS$.

8. Solution: See Linear Algebra Done Right Solution Manual Chapter 7 Problem 3 (a).

9. Solution: See Linear Algebra Done Right Solution Manual Chapter 7 Problem 3 (b).

10. Solution: See Linear Algebra Done Right Solution Manual Chapter 7 Problem 5.

11. Solution: See Linear Algebra Done Right Solution Manual Chapter 7 Problem 4.

12. Solution: Let $u$ be a unit eigenvector (i.e. $\|u\|=1$) of $T$ corresponding to eigenvalue 3, then $Tu=3u$. Let $w$ be a unit eigenvector (i.e. $\|w\|=1$) of $T$ corresponding to eigenvalue 4, then $Tv=4w$.

By 7.22, we have $\langle u,w\rangle =0$. Let $v=au+bw$, then it follows from 6.25 that $$\|v\|^2=\|au+bw\|^2=|a|^2+|b|^2$$ and $$\|Tv\|^2=\|Tau+Tbw\|^2=\|3au+4bw\|^2=9|a|^2+16|b|^2.$$Hence we need to choose $a$ and $b$ such that\[|a|^2+|b|^2=2,\quad 9|a|^2+16|b|^2=25.\]A simple solution is $a=1$ and $b=1$. Hence $v=u+w$ satisfies the requirement.

13. Solution: Define $T \in L(\mathbb{C}^4)$ by

$$ T(z_1, z_2, z_3, z_4) = (z_4, z_1, z_2, z_3). $$ We have

$$ \begin{aligned} \langle (z_1, z_2, z_3, z_4), T^*(x_1, x_2, x_3, x_4) \rangle &= \langle T(z_1, z_2, z_3, z_4), (x_1, x_2, x_3, x_4) \rangle\\ &= \langle (z_4, z_1, z_2, z_3), (x_1, x_2, x_3, x_4) \rangle\\ &= z_4\overline{x_1} + z_1\overline{x_2} + z_2\overline{x_3} + z_3\overline{x_4}\\ &= \langle (z_1, z_2, z_3, z_4), (x_2, x_3, x_4, x_1) \rangle. \end{aligned} $$ Thus $T^*(z_1, z_2, z_3, z_4) = (z_2, z_3, z_4, z_1)$. Note that $T$ is normal ($T^*T$ and $TT^*$ equal the identity), however $T \neq T^*$.

14. Solution: Since $v$ and $w$ are eigenvectors corresponding to distinct eigenvalues, by 7.22 they are orthogonal. Thus

$$ \begin{aligned} ||T(v + w)||^2 &= ||Tv + Tw||^2\\ &= ||3v + 4w||^2\\ &= ||3v||^2 + ||4w||^2\\ &= 9||v||^2 + 16||w||^2\\ &= 100, \end{aligned} $$ where the third line follows from the Pythagorean Theorem.

15. Solution: Let $w_1, w_2 \in V$. We have

$$ \begin{aligned} \langle w_1, T^*w_2 \rangle &= \langle Tw_1, w_2 \rangle\\ &= \langle \langle w_1, u \rangle x, w_2 \rangle\\ &= \langle w_1, u \rangle \langle x, w_2 \rangle\\ &= \langle w_1, \overline{\langle x, w_2 \rangle} u \rangle\\ &= \langle w_1, \langle w_2, x \rangle u \rangle\\ \end{aligned} $$ Hence $T^*v = \langle v, x \rangle u$.

(a) Suppose $T$ is selft-adjoint. Then

$$ \langle v, u \rangle x – \langle v, x \rangle u = Tv – T^*v = 0, $$ for all $v \in V$. We can assume $u$ and $x$ are non-zero (otherwise there is nothing to prove). Taking $v = u$ forces $\langle v, u \rangle \neq 0$, showing that $x$ and $u$ are linearly dependent.

Conversely, suppose $x$ and $u$ are linearly dependent. We can assume $x$ and $u$ are non-zero, otherwise $T$ would equal $0$, which already is self-adjoint. Then $u = cx$, for some non-zero $c \in \mathbb{R}$. Thus

$$ \begin{aligned} Tv &= \langle v, u \rangle x\\ &= \langle v, cx \rangle \frac{1}{c}u\\ &= \langle v, x \rangle u\\ &= T^* v. \end{aligned} $$ Therefore $T = T^*$.

(b) Again, we can assume $u$ and $x$ are both non-zero in both directions of the proof.

We have

$$ \begin{aligned} \langle \langle v, u \rangle x, x \rangle u &= T^*(\langle v, u \rangle x)\\ &= T^*Tv\\ &= TT^*v\\ &= T(\langle v, x \rangle u)\\ &= \langle \langle v, x \rangle u, u \rangle x. \end{aligned} $$ Taking $v = u$ ensures $\langle \langle v, u \rangle x, x \rangle \neq 0$, showing that $u$ and $x$ are linearly dependent.

Conversely, suppose $x$ and $u$ are linearly dependent. Then $u = cx$ for some non-zero $c \in \mathbb{F}$. Then

$$ \begin{aligned} &= TT^*v\\ &= T(\langle v, x \rangle u)\\ &= \langle \langle v, x \rangle u, u \rangle x\\ &= \langle \langle v, x \rangle x, cx \rangle cx\\ &= \langle \langle v, cx \rangle x, x \rangle cx\\ &= \langle \langle v, u \rangle x, x \rangle u\\ &= T^*(\langle v, u \rangle x)\\ &= T^*Tv. \end{aligned} $$ Hence $TT^* = T^*T$.

16. Solution: See Linear Algebra Done Right Solution Manual Chapter 7 Problem 6.

17. Solution: See Linear Algebra Done Right Solution Manual Chapter 7 Problem 7.

18. Solution: We give a counterexample. Let $V = \mathbb{R}^2$ and $T$ defined by

$$ Te_1 = e_1 + e_2, Te_2 = – e_1 – e_2 $$ where $e_1, e_2$ is the standard basis of $\mathbb{R}^2$. Its matrix with respect to the same basis is

$$ \begin{pmatrix} 1 & -1\\ 1 & -1 \end{pmatrix}. $$ Taking the transpose, we see that $T^*$ is defined by

$$ T^*e_1 = e_1 – e_2, T^*e_2 = e_1 – e_2. $$ Note that $||Te_1|| = ||T^*e_1||$ and $||Te_2|| = ||T^*e_2||$. However $\mathcal{M}(T^*)\mathcal{M}(T) \neq \mathcal{M}(T)\mathcal{M}(T^*)$, thus $T$ is not normal.

19. Solution: We saw in Exercise 16 that $\operatorname{null} T = \operatorname{null} T^*$ (for $T$ normal). Thus $(z_1, z_2, z_3) \in \operatorname{null} T$ and we have $$ \begin{aligned} 0 &= \langle T^*(z_1, z_2, z_3), (1, 1, 1) \rangle\\ &= \langle (z_1, z_2, z_3), T(1, 1, 1) \rangle\\ &= \langle (z_1, z_2, z_3), (2, 2, 2) \rangle\\ &= 2z_1 + 2z_2 + 2z_3. \end{aligned} $$ Dividing by $2$ yields the desired result.

20. Solution: Let $v \in V$ and $w \in W$. Then

$$ \begin{aligned} ((\Phi_V \circ T^*)(w))(v) &= (\Phi_V(T^*w))(v)\\ &= \langle v, T^*v \rangle\\ &= \langle Tv, w \rangle. \end{aligned} $$ On the other hand, we have $$ \begin{aligned} ((T’ \circ \Phi_W)(w))(v) &= (T’ \circ \Phi_W(w))(v)\\ &= (\Phi_W(w) \circ T)(v)\\ &= (\Phi_W(w))(Tv)\\ &= \langle Tv, w \rangle. \end{aligned} $$ Therefore $\Phi_V \circ T^* = T’ \circ \Phi_W$.

21. Solution:

(a) Let $e_j = \dfrac{\cos jx}{\sqrt{\pi}}$ and $f_j = \dfrac{\sin jx}{\sqrt{\pi}}$. By Exercise 4 in section 6B, $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}, e_1, \dots, e_n, f_1, \dots, f_n$ is an orthonormal basis of $V$. Note that $De_j = -jf_j$ and $Df_j = je_j$. Then, for any $v, w \in V$, we have

$$ \begin{aligned} \langle v, D^*w \rangle &= \langle Dv, w \rangle\\ &= \left\langle D\left(\left\langle v, \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \right\rangle \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} + \sum_{j=1}^n (\langle v, e_j \rangle e_j + \langle v, f_j \rangle f_j)\right), w \right\rangle\\ &= \left\langle \sum_{j=1}^n (-j\langle v, e_j \rangle f_j + j\langle v, f_j \rangle e_j), \left\langle w, \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \right\rangle \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} + \sum_{j=1}^n (\langle w, e_j \rangle e_j + \langle w, f_j \rangle f_j) \right\rangle\\ &= \sum_{j=1} (-j\langle v, e_j \rangle \langle w, f_j \rangle + j\langle v, f_j \rangle \langle w, e_j \rangle)\\ &= \left\langle \left\langle v, \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \right\rangle \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} + \sum_{j=1}^n (\langle v, e_j \rangle e_j + \langle v, f_j \rangle f_j), \sum_{j=1}^n (-j\langle w, f_j \rangle e_j + j\langle w, e_j \rangle f_j)\right\rangle\\ &= \langle v, -Dw \rangle. \end{aligned} $$ Hence $D^* = -D$. Obviously $D$ is normal but not self-adjoint.

(b) Note that $T = D^2$. Thus $T^* = (DD)^* = D^*D^* = (-D)(-D) = D^2 = T$.

## sivachander

29 Nov 2020I am a novice and thank you for your solutions For prob 2 , is the following correct ?

Let v and $\lambda$ be an eigenvector and eigenvalue of T. Also w and $\beta $ eigenvector and eigenvalue of ${T^*}$. Then

$$ \lt Tv,w \gt = \lt v, { T^*}w \gt $$

$$ \lambda \lt v,w \gt= \bar { \beta} \lt v,w \gt $$

$$ \beta = \bar { \lambda } $$

when $ \lt v,w \gt \not {=} 0 $

## sivachander

28 Nov 2020This is about problem 2. I am a novice and would like to know if there is any error in the following.

Let v be the eigenvector and $\lambda$ an eigen value of T. Also w and $\beta$ eigenvector and eigenvalue of $ {T^*}$. Then $$\lt Tv,w \gt &=& \lt v, {T^*}w \gt $$.

$$ \lt \lambda v, w \gt &=& \lt v, {\beta w} \gt $$

$$ \lambda & \lt v,w&\gt &=& \bar {\beta } \lt v,w \gt $$

$$ \beta&=& \bar {\lambda}$$

Thank you for the solutions. They are a great help.

## sivachander

28 Nov 2020Sorry , my eqns got garbled.

Kindly take () as inner product. My keyboards less than, greater than arent accepted it seems.

(T v,w) = ( v, T*w) for any v,w in V

Hence

lambda ( v,w) = (v, beta w)= conjg beta( v,w)

giving

beta= conjg.lambda

## sivachander

28 Nov 2020For prob 2. Is the following correct ?

Let v be an eigen vector of T , and lambda the corresponding eigen value. Also w be an eigen vector and beta the eigen value of T*.

Since = for all v,w in V,

=

lamba =conjg. beta

lamda = conjg . beta

beta = conjg lamda

I am a novice. Please point out where I am doing wrong. Thank you !

## Phi

13 Aug 2020A typo in 19: you must replace 3 with 2.

## Zheng Chen

19 Feb 2020for Question 4, I think the answer in the solution manual is wrong since rangeT* should be a subspace of V instead of W. The orthogonal complement of rangeT* should be V instead of W.

## Janou

19 Jul 2019About question 2: of course V must be finite-dimensional, because to make sure that the very definition of the adjoint made sense, the author had to rely on the Riesz Representation Theorem, which only works in finite dimensions.

## Wu Jinyang

21 Aug 2017question 12

4th line and 6th line, you are missing two squares on the left side of the equation

## Mohammad Rashidi

21 Aug 2017Fixed, thanks!

## Wu Jinyang

21 Aug 2017By the way, Can you provide an alternate proof for 7.7 (b): range T* = (null T)^

(let ^ denote the orthogonal complement, unable to type that thing).

I really don't like the proof book provides. but I am unable to come up with my own proof.

## Mohammad Rashidi

21 Aug 2017I would say that is a good and the simplest proof, just by checking definition. Which part you don't like?

It is not easy to use the relation between T and T^* in (b) and (d), but easier in (a) and (c). If you don't like "replacing T by T^*", you can prove (c) and then take orthogonal complement.

## Wu Jinyang

21 Aug 2017Yes, but taking the orthogonal complement requires range T to be finite dimensional (6.47 if I understand it right). While (a) and (c) has no such restrictions.

Tell me not that (b) and (d) only holds when range T or null T is finite dimensional

## Mohammad Rashidi

21 Aug 2017See Matt Lundy's comment below. There is a standing assumption in this chapter that everything is finite dimensional (7.1).

## Wu Jinyang

21 Aug 2017I know, but doesn't the fact that (a) and (c) hold in all circumstances while we have to rely on such assumptions for (b) and (d) to hold bothers you?

In other words, I think my question can be rephrased as: Prove or give a counter example: does (b) and (d) still holds when V is infinite dimensional?

## Mohammad Rashidi

21 Aug 2017Does not always hold.

## Marcel Ackermann

19 Jun 2017Solution to 7A6:

a) self adjoint means $ \langle tv,w \rangle = \langle v,tw \rangle$ for all $v,w \in V$. Thus $$\int_0^1 v_1 x (w_0+w_1 x + w_2 x^2)dx = \int_0^1 (v_0+v_1 x + v_2 x^2) w_1 x dx,$$ which is obviously not true. Trivial counterexample $0 != x^3+C$ for all $x$

b) Theorem 7.10 requires an orthonormal basis, $(1,x,x^2)$ isn't orthonormal.

## Matt Lundy

2 Mar 2016Regarding your solution to number 2, your comment on the questionable dimension of V, there is a standing assumption in this chapter that everything is finite dimensional (7.1).

## Mohammad Rashidi

3 Mar 2016Thank you! I haven't read this new edition carefully.